What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 160-meter band?
1800 - 1900 kHz
1900 - 2000 kHz
1800 - 2000 kHz
1825 - 2000 kHz
C
3001 0
G1A02
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
3525 - 3775 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
3525 - 3750 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
3525 - 3775 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
A
3002 0
G1A03
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
7025 - 7175 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
7025 - 7175 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
7025 - 7150 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
7025 - 7150 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
D
3003 0
G1A04
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 30-meter band?
10100 - 10150 kHz
10100 - 10175 kHz
10125 - 10150 kHz
10125 - 10175 kHz
A
3004 0
G1A05
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 20-meter band?
14025 - 14100 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14150 kHz and 14225 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14125 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14175 kHz and 14250 - 14350 kHz
B
3005 0
G1A06
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 15-meter band?
21025 - 21200 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
21025 - 21150 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
21025 - 21150 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
21025 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
D
3006 0
G1A07
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 12-meter band?
24890 - 24990 kHz
24890 - 24975 kHz
24900 - 24990 kHz
24900 - 24975 kHz
A
3007 0
G1A08
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the 10-meter band?
28000 - 29700 kHz
28025 - 29700 kHz
28100 - 29600 kHz
28125 - 29600 kHz
A
3008 0
G1A09
What are the frequency limits within the 160-meter band for phone emissions?
1800 - 2000 kHz
1800 - 1900 kHz
1825 - 2000 kHz
1825 - 1900 kHz
A
3009 0
G1A10
What are the frequency limits within the 80-meter band in ITU Region 2 for CW emissions?
3500 - 3750 kHz
3700 - 3750 kHz
3500 - 4000 kHz
3890 - 4000 kHz
C
3010 0
G1A11
What are the frequency limits within the 40-meter band in ITU Region 2 for image emissions?
7225 - 7300 kHz
7000 - 7150 kHz
7100 - 7150 kHz
7150 - 7300 kHz
D
3011 0
G1A12
What are the frequency limits within the 30-meter band for RTTY emissions?
10125 - 10150 kHz
10125 - 10140 kHz
10100 - 10150 kHz
10100 - 10140 kHz
C
3012 0
G1A13
What are the frequency limits within the 20-meter band for image emissions?
14025 - 14300 kHz
14150 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14350 kHz
14150 - 14300 kHz
B
3013 0
G1A14
What are the frequency limits within the 15-meter band for image emissions?
21250 - 21300 kHz
21150 - 21450 kHz
21200 - 21450 kHz
21100 - 21300 kHz
C
3014 0
G1A15
What are the frequency limits within the 12-meter band for phone emissions?
24890 - 24990 kHz
24890 - 24930 kHz
24930 - 24990 kHz
Phone emissions are not permitted in this band
C
3015 0
G1A16
What are the frequency limits within the 10-meter band for phone emissions?
28000 - 28300 kHz
29000 - 29700 kHz
28300 - 29700 kHz
28000 - 29000 kHz
C
3016 0
G1A17
As a General class control operator at a Novice station, how must you identify your station when transmitting on 7250 kHz?
With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice call sign
With the Novice call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) and your own call sign
With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) and the Novice call sign
A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even with a General control operator
B
3017 0
G1A18
Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a Technician class operator?
Under no circumstances
Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a General class license
D
3018 0
G1A19
What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations?
Repeater station
Space station
Telecommand station
Relay station
A
3019 0
G1A20
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?
Intentional interference
Harmful interference
Adjacent interference
Disruptive interference
B
3020 0
G1A21
What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a foreign country for a third party?
Messages for which the amateur operator is paid
Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party
Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character
No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties
C
3021 0
G1B01
Up to what height above the ground may you install an antenna structure without needing FCC approval?
50 feet
100 feet
200 feet
300 feet
C
3022 0
G1B02
If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must you operate your amateur station?
In accordance with general licensee operator principles
In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice
In accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
In accordance with procedures set forth by the International Amateur Radio Union
B
3023 0
G1B03
Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
Repeater station
Beacon station
HF station
VHF station
B
3024 0
G1B04
Which of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur station gathers news information for broadcast purposes?
The information is more quickly transmitted by amateur radio
The information must involve the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property
The information must be directly related to the event
The information cannot be transmitted by other means
A
3025 0
G1B05
Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle retransmission
D
3026 0
G1B06
When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the communication?
When transmitting above 450 MHz
During contests
Never
During a declared communications emergency
C
3027 0
G1B07
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
There are no restrictions
They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to FCC monitoring stations
Only "10-codes" are permitted
B
3028 0
G1B08
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur communications?
Never
During contests
During nationally declared emergencies
On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
A
3029 0
G1B09
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international amateur communications?
Never
During contests
During internationally declared emergencies
On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
A
3030 0
G1B10
Which of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by the FCC Rules?
The playing of music
The use of obscene or indecent words
False or deceptive messages or signals
Retransmission of space shuttle communications
D
3031 0
G1B11
What should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station?
Turn up the volume of your transceiver
Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength
Turn down the volume of background audio
Adjust your transceiver noise blanker
C
3032 0
G1C01
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 3690 kHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
A
3033 0
G1C02
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 7080 kHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
C
3034 0
G1C03
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
A
3035 0
G1C04
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 21.150 MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
A
3036 0
G1C05
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 24.950 MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
C
3037 0
G1C06
External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what frequency may require FCC type acceptance?
28 MHz
35 MHz
50 MHz
144 MHz
D
3038 0
G1C07
Without a grant of FCC type acceptance, how many external RF amplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz may you build or modify in one calendar year?
None
1
5
10
B
3039 0
G1C08
Which of the following standards must be met if FCC type acceptance of an external RF amplifier is required?
The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to more than ten times the input power
The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed output power when driven with less than 50 watts
The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than ten minutes without a time delay circuit
The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur operator
B
3040 0
G1C09
Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
The capability of being modified by the operator for use outside the amateur bands
The capability of achieving full output power when driven with less than 50 watts
The capability of achieving full output power on amateur frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz
The capability of being switched by the operator to all amateur frequencies below 24 MHz
D
3041 0
G1C10
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions below 28 MHz?
300 bauds
1200 bauds
19.6 kilobauds
56 kilobauds
A
3042 0
G1C11
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions below 28 MHz?
56 kilobauds
19.6 kilobauds
1200 bauds
300 bauds
D
3043 0
G1D01
What telegraphy examination elements may you prepare if you hold a General class license?
None
Element 1A only
Element 1B only
Elements 1A and 1B
B
3044 0
G1D02
What written examination elements may you prepare if you hold a General class license?
None
Element 2 only
Elements 2 and 3A
Elements 2, 3A and 3B
C
3045 0
G1D03
What license examinations may you administer if you hold a General class license?
None
Novice only
Novice and Technician
Novice, Technician and General
C
3046 0
G1D04
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a Novice license?
Element 2 only
Elements 1A and 2
Elements 2 and 3A
Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
B
3047 0
G1D05
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a Technician license?
Element 2 only
Elements 1A and 2
Elements 2 and 3A
Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
C
3048 0
G1D06
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a Technician license with HF privileges?
Element 2 only
Elements 1A and 2
Elements 2 and 3A
Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
D
3049 0
G1D07
What are the requirements for administering Novice examinations?
Three VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be present
Two VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be present
Two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
Any two General class or higher VEs must be present
A
3050 0
G1D08
When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner (VE) for a Novice license examination?
Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination
Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class
Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations for the Novice license, or obtained them from a qualified supplier
Once you have received both your FCC-issued General class or higher license in the mail and VEC accreditation
D
3051 0
G1D09
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?
You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination where you obtained the CSCE
You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/", followed by the identifier "AG"
You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license arrives
No special form of identification is needed
B
3052 0
G1D10
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on 14.325 MHz?
No special form of identification is needed
You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license arrives
You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"
You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination where you obtained the CSCE
C
3053 0
G1D11
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign?
Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges
Whenever you operate
Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
A special identifier is not required as long as your General class license application has been filed with the FCC
A
3054 0
G2A01
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation?
Upper
Lower
Amplitude compandored
Double
A
3055 0
G2A02
Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation?
Upper
Lower
Amplitude compandored
Double
B
3056 0
G2A03
In what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions take place?
3610 - 3630 kHz
3500 - 3525 kHz
3700 - 3750 kHz
3775 - 3825 kHz
A
3057 0
G2A04
In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions take place?
14.000 - 14.050 MHz
14.075 - 14.100 MHz
14.150 - 14.225 MHz
14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B
3058 0
G2A05
What is the Baudot code?
A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits
A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
A 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
C
3059 0
G2A06
What is ASCII?
A 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits
A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
A 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two space bits
A
3060 0
G2A07
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
85 Hz
170 Hz
425 Hz
850 Hz
B
3061 0
G2A08
What are the two major AMTOR operating modes?
Mode AM and Mode TR
Mode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC)
Mode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC)
Mode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN
B
3062 0
G2A09
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 10-meter station in repeater operation?
100 kHz
600 kHz
1.6 MHz
170 Hz
A
3063 0
G2A10
What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?
VXO
VOX
VCO
VFO
B
3064 0
G2A11
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy?
Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses
D
3065 0
G2B01
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins?
Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity
Cancel the net for that day
Conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the regular net frequency
D
3066 0
G2B02
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do?
As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency
Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you
Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it
Turn off your radio
A
3067 0
G2B03
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first
Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference
Move your contact to another frequency
D
3068 0
G2B04
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?
5 to 50 Hz
150 to 500 Hz
1 to 3 kHz
3 to 6 kHz
B
3069 0
G2B05
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference?
150 to 500 Hz
Approximately 3 kHz
Approximately 6 kHz
Approximately 10 kHz
B
3070 0
G2B06
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to center) to minimize interference?
60 Hz
250 to 500 Hz
Approximately 3 kHz
Approximately 6 kHz
B
3071 0
G2B07
What is an azimuthal map?
A map projection centered on the North Pole
A map projection centered on a particular location, used to determine the shortest path between points on the surface of the earth
A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B
3072 0
G2B08
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
Azimuthal
Mercator
Polar projection
Topographical
A
3073 0
G2B09
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading?
45 degrees
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
C
3074 0
G2B10
What is a band plan?
A guideline for using different operating modes within an amateur band
A guideline for deviating from FCC amateur frequency band allocations
A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by the FCC
A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest
A
3075 0
G2B11
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental United States?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
B
3076 0
G2C01
What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract attention, make known its condition and location, and obtain assistance?
Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized emergency channels
Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels
Any means of radiocommunication
Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is licensed
C
3077 0
G2C02
During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations?
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted
Only when the local RACES net is activated
Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster
When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient
A
3078 0
G2C03
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what may the FCC do?
Declare a temporary state of communication emergency
Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at once
Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area
A
3079 0
G2C04
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area, what would the FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of communication emergency?
Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of amateur emergency communications workers
A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your equipment for disaster communications
Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial power systems
Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by stations during the emergency
D
3080 0
G2C05
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress?
200 watts PEP
1500 watts PEP
1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night
There are no limitations during an emergency
D
3081 0
G2C06
During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to obtain assistance?
Only frequencies in the 80-meter band
Only frequencies in the 40-meter band
Any frequency
Any United Nations approved frequency
C
3082 0
G2C07
If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?
Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed
Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance
Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency
B
3083 0
G2C08
Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) participate in training tests and drills?
To practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil defense organization they serve
To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings
To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and drills
To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet in an emergency
A
3084 0
G2C09
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country?
Messages of any type
Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature
Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance
Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a third-party communications agreement with the US
C
3085 0
G2C10
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
A
3086 0
G2C11
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules
To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
To provide emergency and public safety communications
B
3087 0
G3A01
What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
Try a higher frequency
Try the other sideband
Try a different antenna polarization
Try a different frequency shift
A
3088 0
G3A02
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths
It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected
B
3089 0
G3A03
How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the earth?
The effect is instantaneous
1.5 seconds
8 minutes
20 to 40 hours
C
3090 0
G3A04
What is solar flux?
The density of the sun's magnetic field
The radio energy emitted by the sun
The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth
A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun
B
3091 0
G3A05
What is the solar-flux index?
A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months
Another name for the American sunspot number
A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency
D
3092 0
G3A06
What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
Ripples in the ionosphere
A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period of time
D
3093 0
G3A07
At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to geomagnetic disturbances?
Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude
Those near the equator
All paths are affected equally
A
3094 0
G3A08
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation?
Improved high-latitude HF propagation
Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
Improved ground-wave propagation
Improved chances of UHF ducting
B
3095 0
G3A09
What influences all radio communication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges?
Solar activity
Lunar tidal effects
The F1 region of the ionosphere
The F2 region of the ionosphere
A
3096 0
G3A10
Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
Subaudible- and audio-frequency emissions
Electromagnetic and particle emissions
Polar-region and equatorial emissions
Infrared and gamma-ray emissions
B
3097 0
G3A11
When sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected?
High-frequency radio signals are absorbed
Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication
Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication
High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
C
3098 0
G3B01
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to France is 22 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact?
10 meters
15 meters
20 meters
40 meters
B
3099 0
G3B02
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to Germany is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact?
80 meters
40 meters
20 meters
2 meters
C
3100 0
G3B03
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high and HF radio- wave propagation is generally good for several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how many days later?
7
14
28
90
C
3101 0
G3B04
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your station and western Europe?
Listen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency
Listen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency
Listen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency
Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz
A
3102 0
G3B05
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
They are bent back to the earth
They pass through the ionosphere
They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
They are changed to a frequency above the MUF
A
3103 0
G3B06
Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you determine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?
28.2 MHz
21.1 MHz
14.1 MHz
14.2 MHz
C
3104 0
G3B07
During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the least reliable for long-distance communication?
Frequencies below 3.5 MHz
Frequencies near 3.5 MHz
Frequencies on or above 10 MHz
Frequencies above 20 MHz
D
3105 0
G3B08
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
At the summer solstice
Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
At any point in the solar cycle
D
3106 0
G3B09
What is one characteristic of gray-line propagation?
It is very efficient
It improves local communications
It is very poor
It increases D-region absorption
A
3107 0
G3B10
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
180 miles
1200 miles
2500 miles
None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation
C
3108 0
G3B11
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
180 miles
1200 miles
2500 miles
None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation
B
3109 0
G3C01
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region?
45 miles
70 miles
200 miles
1200 miles
B
3110 0
G3C02
When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?
At noon during the summer
At midnight during the summer
At dusk in the spring and fall
At noon during the winter
A
3111 0
G3C03
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest- distance radio-wave propagation?
Because it exists only at night
Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
Because it is the highest ionospheric region
Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C
3112 0
G3C04
What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation?
The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
The compass direction of a distant station
The compass direction opposite that of a distant station
The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D
3113 0
G3C05
What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?
Because of a lack of activity
Because of auroral propagation
Because of D-region absorption
Because of magnetic flux
C
3114 0
G3C06
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
High intelligibility
A wavering sound
Reversed modulation
Reversed sidebands
B
3115 0
G3C07
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal
The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio- wave paths
D
3116 0
G3C08
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy
The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy
A
3117 0
G3C09
What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
Ground wave
Scatter
Sporadic-E skip
Short-path skip
B
3118 0
G3C10
When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?
When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high
At night
When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable frequency (MUF)
D
3119 0
G3C11
What type of signal fading occurs when two or more parts of a radio wave follow different paths?
Multipath interference
Multimode interference
Selective Interference
Ionospheric interference
A
3120 0
G4A01
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope?
Normal speech
An audio-frequency sine wave
Two audio-frequency sine waves
An audio-frequency square wave
C
3121 0
G4A02
When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband transmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone input and on what kind of instrument is the output observed?
Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope
Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer
Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope
Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer
C
3122 0
G4A03
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used
1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related
D
3123 0
G4A04
What measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone transmitter's amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an oscilloscope?
Its percent of frequency modulation
Its percent of carrier phase shift
Its frequency deviation
Its linearity
D
3124 0
G4A05
At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an electronic TR switch normally appear?
Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
Between the low-pass filter and antenna
At the antenna feed point
At the power-supply feed point
A
3125 0
G4A06
Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one?
It allows greater receiver sensitivity
Its circuitry is simpler
It has a higher operating speed
It allows cleaner output signals
C
3126 0
G4A07
As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid- current meter indicates the best neutralization?
A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed
A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed
Minimum grid current
Maximum grid current
A
3127 0
G4A08
Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers?
To reduce the limits of loaded Q
To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage
To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer
To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode capacitance
D
3128 0
G4A09
In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is used?
5%
10%
Negative
Positive
C
3129 0
G4A10
What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
It controls differential gain
It cancels the effects of positive feedback
It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
It reduces incidental grid modulation
B
3130 0
G4A11
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
To limit the modulation index
To eliminate self oscillations
To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
To keep the carrier on frequency
B
3131 0
G4B01
What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and vertical-channel amplifiers?
An ohmmeter
A signal generator
An ammeter
An oscilloscope
D
3132 0
G4B02
How would a signal tracer normally be used?
To identify the source of radio transmissions
To make exact drawings of signal waveforms
To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed lines
To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver
D
3133 0
G4B03
Why would you use an antenna noise bridge?
To measure the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical circuit
To measure the impedance of an antenna or other electrical circuit
To cancel electrical noise picked up by an antenna
To tune out noise in a receiver
B
3134 0
G4B04
How is an antenna noise bridge normally used?
It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's noise figure
It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is tuned for minimum SWR
It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and is tuned for minimum noise
It is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned for minimum SWR
C
3135 0
G4B05
What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
A monitoring oscilloscope
A field-strength meter
A sidetone monitor
A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
A
3136 0
G4B06
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?
The IF output of a monitoring receiver
The audio input of the transmitter
The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna
The RF output of the transmitter
D
3137 0
G4B07
What instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation pattern of an antenna?
A field-strength meter
A grid-dip meter
An oscilloscope
A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
A
3138 0
G4B08
How is a field-strength meter normally used?
To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line
To check the output modulation of a transmitter
To monitor relative RF output
To increase average transmitter output
C
3139 0
G4B09
What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A field-strength meter
An antenna noise bridge
A multimeter
A metronome
A
3140 0
G4B10
If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change?
Decrease by approximately one S unit
Increase by approximately one S unit
Increase by approximately four S units
Decrease by approximately four S units
B
3141 0
G4B11
By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9?
Approximately 2 times
Approximately 3 times
Approximately 4 times
Approximately 5 times
C
3142 0
G4C01
What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate audio-frequency interference to home-entertainment systems?
Bypass inductors
Bypass capacitors
Metal-oxide varistors
Bypass resistors
B
3143 0
G4C02
What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
Ask the telephone company to install RFI filters
Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use
Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
B
3144 0
G4C03
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs?
A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air
On-and-off humming or clicking
Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
C
3145 0
G4C04
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
On-and-off humming or clicking
Audible, possibly distorted speech
Muffled, severely distorted speech
A steady whistling
A
3146 0
G4C05
How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your transmitter's signals?
By using a solid-state transmitter
By using CW emission only
By ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded
By installing bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers
C
3147 0
G4C06
If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33 feet down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the front panel of your HF transceiver?
Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth
Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working to start the cooling fan
Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you
Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF bands and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection
D
3148 0
G4C07
What is NOT an important reason to have a good station ground?
To reduce the cost of operating a station
To reduce electrical noise
To reduce interference
To reduce the possibility of electric shock
A
3149 0
G4C08
What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station?
Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible
Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity
Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground
Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects to your station
A
3150 0
G4C09
Which statement about station grounding is NOT true?
Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie station equipment together into a station ground
Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a station ground
According to the National Electrical Code, there should be only one grounding system in a building
The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet
B
3151 0
G4C10
Which statement about station grounding is true?
The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high-impedance conductors
If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground
RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire
A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment
C
3152 0
G4C11
Which of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical Code?
Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur antennas
The size and composition of grounding conductors
Electrical safety inside the ham shack
The RF exposure limits of the human body
D
3153 0
G4D01
What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
It reduces average transmitter power requirements
It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
It improves voice frequency fidelity
It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver
D
3154 0
G4D02
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?
It will increase the output PEP
It will add nothing to the output PEP
It will decrease the peak power output
It will decrease the average power output
B
3155 0
G4D03
How is the output PEP of a transmitter calculated if an oscilloscope is used to measure the transmitter's peak load voltage across a resistive load?
PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL)
PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL
PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL
B
3156 0
G4D04
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
100 watts
200 watts
400 watts
1000 watts
A
3157 0
G4D05
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
500 watts
625 watts
1250 watts
2500 watts
B
3158 0
G4D06
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if an average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
530 watts
1060 watts
1500 watts
2120 watts
B
3159 0
G4D07
Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?
Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
Only the "neutral" (white) wire
Only the ground (bare) wire
All wires
A
3160 0
G4D08
What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 120-VAC household lighting circuit?
AWG number 14
AWG number 16
AWG number 18
AWG number 22
A
3161 0
G4D09
What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household appliance circuit?
AWG number 20
AWG number 16
AWG number 14
AWG number 12
D
3162 0
G4D10
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a household appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring?
100 amperes
60 amperes
30 amperes
20 amperes
D
3163 0
G4D11
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a household appliance circuit using AWG number 14 wiring?
15 amperes
20 amperes
30 amperes
60 amperes
A
3164 0
G4E01
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue?
It heats the tissue
It causes radiation poisoning
It causes blood flow to stop
It produces genetic changes in the tissue
A
3165 0
G4E02
If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?
Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize feed-line length
Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation
Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating
Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects
C
3166 0
G4E03
What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments to the feed system of a parabolic dish antenna?
Be sure no one can activate the transmitter
Disconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism
Point the dish away from the sun so it doesn't concentrate solar energy on you
Be sure you and the antenna structure are properly grounded
A
3167 0
G4E04
What is one important thing to consider when using an indoor antenna?
Use stranded wire to reduce stray RF
Ensure that the antenna is as far away from people as possible
Use only a Yagi antenna to direct the signals away from people
Use as much power as possible to ensure that your signal gets out
B
3168 0
G4E05
Why should a protective fence be placed around the base of a ground-mounted parabolic dish transmitting antenna?
To reduce the possibility of persons being harmed by RF energy during transmissions
To reduce the possibility that animals will damage the antenna
To increase the property value through increased security awareness
To protect the antenna from lightning damage and provide a good ground system for the installation
A
3169 0
G4E06
What RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?
Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions
Turn off the main power switch in your house
B
3170 0
G4E07
What precaution should you take when installing a ground- mounted antenna?
It should not be installed higher than you can reach
It should not be installed in a wet area
It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it
It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it
D
3171 0
G4E08
What precautions should you take before beginning repairs on a microwave feed horn or waveguide?
Be sure to wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect your body and hands from sharp edges
Be sure the transmitter is turned off and the power source is disconnected
Be sure the weather is dry and sunny
Be sure propagation conditions are unfavorable for tropospheric ducting
B
3172 0
G4E09
Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?
So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm
So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy
So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves
So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures
D
3173 0
G4E10
For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located?
Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground
As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter
As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna
Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder
C
3174 0
G4E11
Which property of RF energy is NOT important in estimating the energy's effect on body tissue?
The polarization
The critical angle
The power density
The frequency
B
3175 0
G5A01
What is impedance?
The electric charge stored by a capacitor
The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only capacitance
The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
The force of repulsion between one electric field and another with the same charge
C
3176 0
G5A02
What is reactance?
Opposition to DC caused by resistors
Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
B
3177 0
G5A03
In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
Resistance
Reluctance
Admittance
Reactance
D
3178 0
G5A04
In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
Resistance
Reluctance
Reactance
Admittance
C
3179 0
G5A05
How does a coil react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D
3180 0
G5A06
How does a capacitor react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
A
3181 0
G5A07
When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?
When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source
When the load resistance is infinite
When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current
When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers
A
3182 0
G5A08
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
The source delivers minimum power to the load
The electrical load is shorted
No current can flow through the circuit
The source delivers maximum power to the load
D
3183 0
G5A09
Why is impedance matching important?
So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
So the load will draw minimum power from the source
To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
A
3184 0
G5A10
What unit is used to measure reactance?
Mho
Ohm
Ampere
Siemens
B
3185 0
G5A11
What unit is used to measure impedance?
Volt
Ohm
Ampere
Watt
B
3186 0
G5B01
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
1 dB higher
3 dB higher
6 dB higher
12 dB higher
B
3187 0
G5B02
How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?
Divide the original power by 1.5
Divide the original power by 2
Divide the original power by 3
Divide the original power by 4
B
3188 0
G5B03
How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?
Multiply the original power by 1.5
Multiply the original power by 2
Multiply the original power by 3
Multiply the original power by 4
D
3189 0
G5B04
If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
S5
S7
S9
S9 plus 5 dB
C
3190 0
G5B05
If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 15 watts?
S5
S7
S9
S9 plus 10 dB
C
3191 0
G5B06
If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two parallel-connected 10-ohm resistors, how much current passes through each resistor?
10 amperes
2 amperes
1 ampere
0.5 ampere
D
3192 0
G5B07
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors?
It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor
It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor
It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit
It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors
B
3193 0
G5B08
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
0.5 watts
200 watts
400 watts
320,000 watts
B
3194 0
G5B09
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
60 watts
24 watts
6 watts
2.4 watts
D
3195 0
G5B10
How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow through 1.25 kilohms?
Approximately 61 milliwatts
Approximately 39 milliwatts
Approximately 11 milliwatts
Approximately 9 milliwatts
A
3196 0
G5B11
What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
2370 volts
540 volts
26.7 volts
5.9 volts
C
3197 0
G5B12
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
12.2 to 1
24.4 to 1
150 to 1
300 to 1
A
3198 0
G5B13
What is the impedance of a speaker that requires a transformer with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance of 2000 ohms?
576 ohms
83.3 ohms
7.0 ohms
3.5 ohms
D
3199 0
G5B14
A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC voltage would produce the same amount of heat over time in a resistive element?
The peak-to-peak value
The RMS value
The average value
The peak value
B
3200 0
G5B15
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
84.8 volts
169.7 volts
204.8 volts
339.4 volts
D
3201 0
G5B16
A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?
8.5 volts
12 volts
24 volts
34 volts
B
3202 0
G6A01
If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance?
It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
It will stay the same
It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating
It will become time dependent
C
3203 0
G6A02
What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
Disc ceramic
Vacuum variable
Mica
Electrolytic
D
3204 0
G6A03
What type of capacitor is used in power-supply circuits to filter transient voltage spikes across the transformer's secondary winding?
High-value
Trimmer
Vacuum variable
Suppressor
D
3205 0
G6A04
Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer?
To the secondary winding
To the primary winding
To the core
To the plates
B
3206 0
G6A05
If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
Magnetizing current
Direct current
Excitation current
Stabilizing current
A
3207 0
G6A06
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply rectifier?
The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
1.4 times the AC frequency
The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non- conducting direction
2.8 times the AC frequency
C
3208 0
G6A07
What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon-diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits?
Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
Average power; average voltage
Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
Peak load impedance; peak voltage
A
3209 0
G6A08
Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with power-supply rectifier diodes?
To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage spikes
To ensure that the current through each diode is about the same
To smooth the output waveform
To decrease the output voltage
A
3210 0
G6A09
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
A steady DC voltage
A
3211 0
G6A10
A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
B
3212 0
G6A11
A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
D
3213 0
G7A01
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
It improves voltage regulation
It discharges the filter capacitors
It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
It eliminates ground-loop current
B
3214 0
G7A02
Where is a power-supply bleeder resistor connected?
Across the filter capacitor
Across the power-supply input
Between the transformer primary and secondary windings
Across the inductor in the output filter
A
3215 0
G7A03
What components are used in a power-supply filter network?
Diodes
Transformers and transistors
Quartz crystals
Capacitors and inductors
D
3216 0
G7A04
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a full-wave power supply?
One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D
3217 0
G7A05
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
D
3218 0
G7A06
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
Substantially higher
About the same
Substantially lower
Twice the transmission line impedance
B
3219 0
G7A07
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer?
Carrier oscillator
Filter
IF amplifier
RF amplifier
B
3220 0
G7A08
In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the carrier oscillator and the speech amplifier and sends signals to the filter?
Mixer
Detector
IF amplifier
Balanced modulator
D
3221 0
G7A09
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit processes signals from the RF amplifier and the local oscillator and sends signals to the IF filter?
Balanced modulator
IF amplifier
Mixer
Detector
C
3222 0
G7A10
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit processes signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO and sends signals to the AF amplifier?
RF oscillator
IF filter
Balanced modulator
Detector
D
3223 0
G7A11
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit processes signals from the IF filter and sends signals to the detector?
RF oscillator
IF amplifier
Mixer
BFO
B
3224 0
G8A01
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
Frequency modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude-rectification modulation
Amplitude modulation
D
3225 0
G8A02
What type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
Pulse modulation
Phase modulation
Phase-rectification modulation
Amplitude modulation
B
3226 0
G8A03
What type of modulation system changes the frequency of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
Phase-rectification modulation
Frequency-rectification modulation
Amplitude modulation
Frequency modulation
D
3227 0
G8A04
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
Multiplex modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Pulse modulation
B
3228 0
G8A05
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
Frequency shift keying
Pulse modulation
Frequency modulation
Amplitude modulation
D
3229 0
G8A06
How much is the carrier suppressed below peak output power in a single-sideband phone transmission?
No more than 20 dB
No more than 30 dB
At least 40 dB
At least 60 dB
C
3230 0
G8A07
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double- sideband phone transmission?
Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
More power can be put into the sidebands
Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal
C
3231 0
G8A08
Which popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
Single-sideband
Double-sideband
Phase-modulated
Frequency-modulated
A
3232 0
G8A09
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single- sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter?
It becomes louder with no other effects
It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response
It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio
It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
D
3233 0
G8A10
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter?
For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
For a dip in plate current
B
3234 0
G8A11
What is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone transmission?
Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
C
3235 0
G8B01
What receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with a 13.795-MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
Mixer
BFO
VFO
Multiplier
A
3236 0
G8B02
If a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz received signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345-MHz signal produce in the receiver?
Local oscillator
Image response
Mixer interference
Intermediate interference
B
3237 0
G8B03
What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal to 14.3 MHz?
A mixer
A beat frequency oscillator
A frequency multiplier
A linear translator
A
3238 0
G8B04
What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that selects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
Mixer
Reactance modulator
Preemphasis network
Multiplier
D
3239 0
G8B05
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
The bandwidth would exceed FCC limits
The frequency stability would not be adequate
C
3240 0
G8B06
What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
3 kHz
5 kHz
8 kHz
16 kHz
D
3241 0
G8B07
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance- modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
41.67 Hz
416.7 Hz
5 kHz
12 kHz
B
3242 0
G8B08
How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the keying speed in WPM
The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed
Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
C
3243 0
G8B09
What do RTTY, Morse code, AMTOR and packet communications have in common?
They are multipath communications
They are digital communications
They are analog communications
They are only for emergency communications
B
3244 0
G8B10
What is the duty cycle required of a transmitter when sending Mode B (FEC) AMTOR?
50%
75%
100%
125%
C
3245 0
G8B11
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most AMTOR operations found?
At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
At the bottom of the RTTY segment, near 14.075 MHz
D
3246 0
G9A01
How can the SWR bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
Use larger diameter elements
Use closer element spacing
Use traps on the elements
Use tapered-diameter elements
A
3247 0
G9A02
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?
17 feet
33 feet
35 feet
66 feet
B
3248 0
G9A03
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?
42 feet
21 feet
17 feet
10.5 feet
B
3249 0
G9A04
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?
8.75 feet
16.6 feet
17.5 feet
35 feet
C
3250 0
G9A05
Which statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true?
The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
The driven element is the longest parasitic element
Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
B
3251 0
G9A06
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
Gain increases
SWR increases
Weight decreases
Windload decreases
A
3252 0
G9A07
What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance
Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance
High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth
D
3253 0
G9A08
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications on the 20-meter band?
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane
It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind
It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands
C
3254 0
G9A09
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
C
3255 0
G9A10
What is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation pattern?
The direction of least radiation from the antenna
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C
3256 0
G9A11
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna?
Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements
Use RG-58 feed line
Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna
Avoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the ground
A
3257 0
G9B01
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?
1.17 feet
11.7 feet
47 feet
469 feet
B
3258 0
G9B02
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?
17.6 feet
23.4 feet
70.3 feet
175 feet
A
3259 0
G9B03
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna reflector element for 29.6 MHz?
8.23 feet
8.7 feet
9.7 feet
34.8 feet
B
3260 0
G9B04
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta- loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
8.75 feet
11.7 feet
23.4 feet
35 feet
B
3261 0
G9B05
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta- loop antenna driven element for 24.9 MHz?
10.99 feet
12.95 feet
13.45 feet
40.36 feet
C
3262 0
G9B06
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta- loop antenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz?
18.26 feet
23.76 feet
24.35 feet
73.05 feet
C
3263 0
G9B07
Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas is true?
They compare favorably with a three-element Yagi
They perform poorly above HF
They perform very well only at HF
They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire
A
3264 0
G9B08
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical-quad antenna?
The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane
The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane
The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes
The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes
C
3265 0
G9B09
Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?
It will significantly increase the antenna feed-point impedance
It will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point impedance
It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal
It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical
D
3266 0
G9B10
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a delta-loop antenna?
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
C
3267 0
G9B11
What is the "main lobe" of a delta-loop antenna radiation pattern?
The direction of least radiation from an antenna
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C
3268 0
G9C01
What type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT require a feed line?
A random-wire antenna
A triband Yagi antenna
A delta-loop antenna
A Beverage antenna
A
3269 0
G9C02
What is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna?
It is more efficient than any other kind of antenna
It will keep RF energy out of your station
It doesn't need an impedance matching network
It is a multiband antenna
D
3270 0
G9C03
What is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna?
It must be longer than 1 wavelength
You may experience RF feedback in your station
It usually produces vertically polarized radiation
You must use an inverted-T matching network for multiband operation
B
3271 0
G9C04
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane antenna?
It lowers the radiation angle
It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
It increases the radiation angle
It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
D
3272 0
G9C05
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward- sloping?
It decreases
It increases
It stays the same
It approaches zero
B
3273 0
G9C06
What is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal half- wavelength dipole HF antenna installed parallel to the earth?
It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side
A
3274 0
G9C07
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, reflected radio waves from the ground significantly distort the pattern
Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B
3275 0
G9C08
If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
The radiation pattern will not be affected
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the parasitic element
D
3276 0
G9C09
If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
The radiation pattern will not be affected
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from the parasitic element, toward the dipole
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements
B
3277 0
G9C10
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
As high as possible above the ground
On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
Parallel to the antenna element
At the top of the antenna
B
3278 0
G9C11
If you are transmitting from a ground-mounted vertical antenna, which of the following is an important reason for people to stay away from it?
To avoid skewing the radiation pattern
To avoid changes to the antenna feed-point impedance
To avoid excessive grid current
To avoid exposure to RF radiation
D
3279 1
G9D01
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna feed line?
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
A
3280 0
G9D02
What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
25 and 30 ohms
50 and 75 ohms
80 and 100 ohms
500 and 750 ohms
B
3281 0
G9D03
What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
50 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms
300 ohms
D
3282 0
G9D04
What is the typical cause of power being reflected back down an antenna feed line?
Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed- point impedance
Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C
3283 0
G9D05
What must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and current on an antenna feed line?
The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter-wavelengths long
The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half-wavelengths long
The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D
3284 0
G9D06
If a center-fed dipole antenna is fed by parallel-conductor feed line, how would an inductively coupled matching network be used between the two?
It would not normally be used with parallel-conductor feed lines
It would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level
It would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter output to the balanced parallel-conductor feed line
It would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the radiation resistance
C
3285 0
G9D07
If a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the same coaxial cable, how will the attenuation of the two signals compare?
It will be greater at 2 meters
It will be less at 2 meters
It will be the same at both frequencies
It will depend on the emission type in use
A
3286 0
G9D08
In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
Bels/1000 ft
dB/1000 ft
Bels/100 ft
dB/100 ft
D
3287 0
G9D09
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm feed- point impedance?
4:1
1:4
2:1
1:2
A
3288 0
G9D10
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm feed- point impedance?
2:1
50:1
1:5
5:1
D
3289 0
G9D11
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm feed- point impedance?
